For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.  For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.  There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.  And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.Galatians 3:26-29 NASB
As I have pointed out before, Paul upheld and taught the Torah. Many folks in this Torah walk want to minimize Paul. They will find many things in his letters that they have trouble finding in the Torah, therefore they say “Paul wasn’t a legit Apostle” or “Paul was writing based on cultural bias and we don’t need to worry about what he said, it’s not Torah.” One of my first thoughts when I hear someone say this is ‘how arrogant can you be?’ My personal belief is that the Apostle Paul likely understood the Torah better than any other human being who ever walked the earth save Moses and Yeshua. There is a reason why Peter labels Paul’s writings as scripture (2 Peter 3:16). I pray that I have demonstrated to you in recent posts, as I will in this one, that the Apostle Paul upheld and taught the Torah and it is at our own peril if we ignore his writings. If something he wrote appears to contradict the Torah then we are misunderstanding him. If we have trouble finding something he wrote in the Torah then we simply haven’t understood the Torah to the depth necessary. This, I venture to say, is a lifelong task.
So, has anyone ever wondered what Paul was talking about in Galatians 3:28? Where did he get this from? What does it even mean? Is this found in the Torah?
In this study I was specifically looking at direct commandments being delivered within the context of the Torah which is the standard we are called to live by. The remainder of scripture is practical application of Torah. To the degree that commands are given elsewhere they all have their basis in the Torah and they never conflict with the Torah.
What does bên mean in Hebrew? Strongs H1121
Bên Israel is commonly used in the opening of a passage when Moses is delivering the Torah. Bên is in the masculine form. Some versions commonly translate it as “children” others translate it as “sons”. Lev. 12:2 is a specific example. KJV translates bên as “children” NASB translates bên as “sons”. It seems to me that the men are being addressed specifically throughout the Torah when commands are delivered by Yah via Moses..
I understand that based on the context we apply this to all the people and I think it’s appropriate to do just that. I also understand that it holds to the Hebrew language structure to use the masculine form even when the group being addressed is a mixed audience. However, there is a specific example where Yah uses a different word to address the entire assembly when he is addressing the women, children, slaves, and foreigners as well as the men when giving a command. This is actually quite exciting so please stick with me! I believe that Yah is intentional when he uses this particular masculine word. I do believe there were women and children also present when Moses spoke the Torah to the men and I believe the commands apply to them as well. I however do not believe the women and children were specifically being spoken to. Consider that it was Adam who was held accountable for Eve’s actions. By learning and walking properly the roles Yah has assigned us, men should be avoiding the sin of Adam (not being the head) and women avoiding the sin of Eve (not being in submission to her head).
There are very few instances where Yah speaks directly to women in Torah. Even in Lev 12 and 15 the men are addressed concerning the specifics about women’s menstruation, childbirth and such. It is then the responsibility of the men to insure those commands are carried out under their headship.
To be clear, Yah is delivering these commands through Moses to the men of the households and it’s the man’s responsibility to teach them and discern correct application for his women. And, it is the man’s responsibility to correct her accordingly. Yah is a “gentleman” and this is another example such as Numbers 30, previously addressed, where Yah maintains the hierarchy and literally does not circumvent His authority given to the woman’s head / man.
What, then, is ‛êdâh ?
 Speak to all the congregation of Israel, saying, ‘On the tenth of this month they are each one to take a lamb for themselves, according to their fathers’ households, a lamb for each household.Exodus 12:3 NASB
That word “congregation” is: ‛êdâh Strongs H5712 and it is appropriately translated as such.
Ok so I did a little digging and I cannot find another Torah command addressed specifically to the whole congregation of Israel… the only other time the word ‛êdâh is used in the opening address of a command is in Lev. 19:2 and it says “the congregation (‛êdâh) of the sons (bên) of Israel” so it’s still a specific address to the men.
Based on what I just pointed out the only context where Yah bypasses the hierarchy and delivers a command directly to all of the assembly including men, women, children, slaves, and foreigners etc… is in the context of the first Passover and the ongoing observance of the passover which is a picture of the ultimate salvation in Yeshua himself. All other matters are directly delivered to the men. Salvation appears to be the only issue that a man does not have direct authority over his women. All other “manner of life” commands are given following the hierarchy through the headship of the man.
We know that elsewhere Paul makes it very clear that women are to be subject to their husbands in everything.
But as the church is subject to Christ, so also the wives ought to be to their husbands in everything.Ephesians 5:24 NASB
This is a very good reason why every woman should be under headship. It is a place of protection for her. We as men need to be prepared to step up and provide that love, headship, guidance and correction for whatever woman or women that Yah puts in our lives and to the degree that he leads us to do so. Ladies, I ask you, are you walking this out in submission to your head / man? Those of you who are single, are you seeking to come under the headship of a man? What does Paul say should be happening for widows under the age of 60? 1 Tim. 5 tells us she should be seeking a head. Ladies who are divorced need to be thinking long and hard about what Numbers 30:9 has to say putting them in the same status as widows. Scripture clearly indicates that it is best if all single ladies seek to be under the headship of a man. Will we walk out what scripture teaches? Or, will we continue to be ruled by our cultural biases and fear of man?
Remember this first Passover was open to all who would choose to follow Yah… and some foreigners did choose to follow. Exodus 12:38, 48 (Paul references them as Greeks) Slaves are referenced as well. Exodus 12:44. For clarity sake what I am pointing out is that Paul grasped the fact that Salvation is open to all and no one has authority over another with reguard to acceptance of salvation. Just as Exodus 12 makes clear that the Passover is open to all, Paul points out that Jew, Greek, male, female, slave and free have equal status in messiah as it pertains to salvation.
 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.  And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.Galatians 3:28-29 NASB
So why did Paul mention Abraham and the promise here in this context? How does this fit in with Passover? And what is the relationship with belonging to Messiah?
All the congregation of Israel are to celebrate this.  But if a stranger sojourns with you, and celebrates the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near to celebrate it; and he shall be like a native of the land. But no uncircumcised person may eat of it.  The same law shall apply to the native as to the stranger who sojourns among you.Exodus 12:47-49 NASB
There’s that word congregation (‛êdâh) again. This time in direct connection to the stranger (Greek) who chooses to reverence (sojourns) Yah and partake of the Passover (Salvation). Did you notice the command is for circumcision? What is the eternal sign of the covenant made with Abraham?
God said further to Abraham, “Now as for you, you shall keep My covenant, you and your descendants after you throughout their generations.  This is My covenant, which you shall keep, between Me and you and your descendants after you: every male among you shall be circumcised.  And you shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskin, and it shall be the sign of the covenant between Me and you. ”Genesis 17:9-11 NASB
The Apostle Paul upheld and taught the Torah. He did not attempt to add to it or take from it. In Gal. 3:26-29 he is expounding on Exodus 12 and giving us the truth from the Torah with regard to salvation and the Passover. He is further tying it all back to the covenant with Abraham. Paul is remaining consistent with his teaching from (Titus 2:9) that a bondslave is to be subject to their master. He is remaining consistent with himself (1Cor. 12:13) and the Torah, teaching that upon entering into salvation all become part of the assembly (body). He is not contradicting himself (Eph. 5) or the Torah and teaching some sort of false egalitarian crap as it regards the authority structure laid out consistently throughout the scriptures and expounded by himself in 1 Corinthians 11 which is Yah > Messiah > man> woman.
I hope that each of you have been helped with this ongoing study and I look forward to further exploration of this important topic.