5 Responses to If the Law was not given to Gentiles, then how did Y’shua save Gentiles from the condemnation of the Law?

1. loammi says:

   June 8, 2014 at 12:11 pm

   Plus why keep the 10 commandments if they were given to ‘the Jews’ not gentiles…

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2. Shannon Schmelzle says:

   June 8, 2014 at 2:20 pm

   Why get married, isn’t that Jewish?

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   • Pete Rambo says:

     June 8, 2014 at 4:38 pm

     LOL!

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3. themalechapter says:

   June 9, 2014 at 10:27 am

   For when the Gentiles, which have not the law,DO BY NATURE THE THINGS CONTAINED IN THE LAW,these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves. WHICH SHOW THE WORK OF THE LAW WRITTEN IN THEIR HEART, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;) (Rom 2:14,15)
   Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, BUT ALSO OF THE GENTILES?
   And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my
   people;THERE SHALL THEY BE CALLED THE CHILDREN OF THE LIVING GOD.
   What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have
   attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
   (Rom 9:24,26,30)

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4. Jack Jackson says:

   June 9, 2014 at 12:18 pm

   We are also told that the reason that those that were in “the land” before Israel were evicted was that they “defiled the land”. How could YHVH hold them accountable to laws which dictate defilement, if they were not expected to obey these laws? Also in Isaiah 24 we are shown that YHVH will judge the world for defiling the land:by not keeping His Torah, for changing His ordinances, and breaking the everlasting covenant. Sure seems He is serious about this, dead serious, as “only few be left” once He judges them for defiling His land (all is His!).

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